As part of their divorce agreement, DH paid half of a joint furniture credit card bill. He paid his half directly to the credit company, despite BM's request to have him write a check directly to her. She was supposed to pay her half and they would have the account closed.

She hasn't paid her half; she's continuing to make the monthly minimum payments (often late). The problem is, it's still a JOINT debt. The credit card company won't issue her her own line of credit because her credit sucks. So until it's paid off, they share this old joint debt (about $2K). She is unable to get any refinancing (even from her bank) because of her credit.

Also in their divorce agreement was that DH would pay 1/2 of whatever damages were done to the rental property they lived in at the time BM moves. This was only agreed to because he had dogs and lived their primarily on his own with the kids because she was deployed most of the time. Well, now she's getting ready to move, and we are bracing ourselves for this bill.

He's told her he'll pay half of the net amount (they had renter's insurance to cover anything substantial). But here's my question .. do you think it would be legal for him to pay the amount (whatever it is) directly to the credit card company to get this debt off his name? From a court perspective, do you think he could get away with that? The divorce agreement doesn't specify what the payment terms are at all, just that he has to pay half.

FYI .. He can't pay his half directly to the housing agency because they automatically deduct it from her Basic Housing Allowance.